Pidgins and Creoles have been said to have "the grammar of one language and the vocabulary of another". In what sense is such a statement true, false or a bit of both?
In the previous class about Sociolinguistics, my teacher after taught about Pidgins and Creoles, she gave us 1 statement (which I mentioned above). I don't quite understand her statement. I just know that: pidgins are simplified vocabulary and structure. Creoles are more complicated structure and more vocabularies.
The teacher asked us to state that whether her statement is true or false or both, and in what senses?
Thanks for your support but I don't copy anything you answer. I just read your explanation for understanding and do research by myself. Now I am finding some materials for answering this statement. I'll be very happy if you can co-operate with me for this topic. I will post the answer after my discovery.
I believe that pdgin is not a grammar of one language but it is a vocabulary of another. In other words, those, who speack pidgin, use some words from the other language, and adapt them into very simple grammar. This grammar is not necessary their mother tongue language's grammar. It is a simplified grammar."the grammar of one language and the vocabulary of another".