[Grammar] all part of our

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Maybo

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The tokens controversy was, I suppose, all part of our getting more acquisitive as we grew older.

What's the difference if I say "the tokens controversy was, I suppose, all part of us getting more acquisitive as we grew older."?





Never Let Me Go by Kazuo Ishiguro
https://archive.org/stream/NeverLetMeGo/NeverLetMeGo_djvu.txt
 
There's no difference in meaning. Some teachers will insist on your using "our" there instead of "us" but in everyday English, you'll probably hear "us" more often.
 
"Us" I can live with. I draw the line at "we."

And what I hate most is people saying "myself" because they don't know whether to say "I" or "me": My wife and myself went to Bermuda.

Instead of living with being wrong half the time, they consign themselves to being wrong all the time.

Is it just an Americanism?
 
But I have questions. Does "getting" act as a noun in the sentence? Like "our getting"?
 
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'Getting' is a gerund, a verb-form that has some of the characteristics of a verb and some of a noun.

Those who consider it more noun-like would use 'our'; those who consider it more verb-like would us 'us'.
If I consider it is more noun-like, can I add "were" into the sentence? E.g.The tokens controversy was, I suppose, all part of our getting were more acquisitive as we grew older.
 
I really wouldn't do that.
 
The tokens controversy was, I suppose, all part of our getting were more acquisitive as we grew older.
Adding were makes the sentence ungrammatical and incomprehensible.
 
How should I parse the sentence?
Because I don understand why the noun "our getting" can be followed by an adjective.
 
I think the whole gerund/participle distinction is what is confusing you. I had to read your sentence with were in it several times before I understood what you meant. Think of getting as having the meaning of becoming, and don't add any more verbs to the sentence.
 
The tokens controversy was, I suppose, all part of our getting more acquisitive as we grew older.

How should I parse the sentence?
Because I don understand why the noun "our getting" can be followed by an adjective.
You can start by removing inessential parts: The controversy was part of our getting acquisitive. This means "We got greedy, which led (in part) to the controversy."

Does my bare-bones version of the sentence make it any clearer?
 
Oh, I think I got confused by all part of our.
All part of our= our all part? Not our getting.
The sentence should be cut like this? The tokens controversy was, our all part /getting more acquisitive as we grew older.
 
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Then what does "our" refer to?

The tokens controversy was,all part of our getting more acquisitive as we grew older.


The sentence should be kept in this structure?
The tokens controversy was,all part of our/ getting more acquisitive as we grew older.
 
I would replace the comma with a space and delete the slash.
 
Why could we say "all part of our"? Can I say "all part of my"?
 
Why could we say "all part of our"? Can I say "all part of my"?

Yes, as part of a longer sentence.

Dyeing my hair regularly is all part of my attempt to look younger.
 
Yes, as part of a longer sentence.

Dyeing my hair regularly is all part of my attempt to look younger.
But this example "all part of my attempt" is different from"all part of our getting"

How should I break the sentence?
1.The tokens controversy was, all part of our, getting more acquisitive.
2.The tokens controversy was, all part of our getting, more acquisitive.
 
OK, then "Dyeing my hair is all part of my trying to look younger".
 
But isn't "getting" mean becoming? What does "our getting" mean? I know "trying" act as a noun mean attempt but what does "getting" mean? Mean a change?
 
OK, then "Dyeing my hair is all part of my trying to look younger".
"The tokens controversy was, all part of our getting to be more acquisitive." Can I say that? Because "our getting more acquisitive" is strange to me.
 
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