Are both sentences grammatical?

[Tan Elaine]

Are both sentences correct and have they the same meaning?

Are both sentences correct and do they have the same meaning?

Are the above sentences grammatical?

Thanks.

 

[andrewg927]

Are both sentences correct and have they the same meaning?

Are both sentences correct and do they have the same meaning?

Thanks.

See above.

 

[GoesStation]

They are both grammatically correct, mean the same thing, and will be understood. Only the second one is natural.

We usually use inversion with to have only when it's an auxiliary verb.

 

[GoesStation]

I believe some Americans use it sometimes, too - perhaps in New England, though I can't recall having heard it there.