[Grammar] as/than

[kadioguy]

Are all of the sentence acceptable? If not, could you tell me the reason?
------------
He is as old as I.
He is not as/so old as I.

He is older than I.
He is younger than I.

She is more beautiful than her sister.
She is less beautiful than her sister.

I have as many books as he.
I have not as/so many books as he.

I have more books than he.
I have less books than he.

 

[J&K Tutoring]

There is one mistake, and it has to do with countable/uncountable nouns. Can you find it?

 

[GoesStation]

I and he at the ends of the sentences are not natural in American English, except perhaps for a few descendants of English teachers. Use me and him.

 

[Matthew Wai]

I think 'I am' and 'he does' are possible there.

 

[kadioguy]

There is one mistake, and it has to do with countable/uncountable nouns. Can you find it?

I see.

I have fewer books than he.

 

[Matthew Wai]

... than he does.

 

[kadioguy]

... than he does.

Ya, I see.

I have more books than he does.
I have less books than he does.

Because those are 'his books' (the books that he has), not 'he' (person), right?

 

[GoesStation]

Ya, I see.

I have more books than he does.
I have less books than he does.

Because those are 'his books' (the books that he has), not 'he' (person), right?

English teachers used to tell their students, against all evidence, that he is the subject pronoun required in statements like "It is he." Everyone else said "It is him." If they wanted to avoid what their teachers insisted was incorrect usage, they found another way to say what was on their mind.

Your second sentence still has an error related to countable nouns.

 

[kadioguy]

Your second sentence still has an error related to countable nouns.

Thank you!
-------
I have more books than he does.
I have fewer books than he does.
--------

English teachers used to tell their students, against all evidence, that he is the subject pronoun required in statements like "It is he." Everyone else said "It is him." If they wanted to avoid what their teachers insisted was incorrect usage, they found another way to say what was on their mind.

I am sorry, but at my English level I can't understand what you really mean.
Could you say it in a more easier way?

 

[GoesStation]

English teachers used to tell their students, against all evidence, that he is the subject pronoun required in statements like "It is he." Everyone else said "It is him." If they wanted to avoid what their teachers insisted was incorrect usage, they found another way to say what was on their mind.

Your second sentence still has an error related to countable nouns.

I have fewer books than he does. :tick:
--------

I am sorry, but at my English level I can't understand what you really mean.
Could you say it in an [strike]more[/strike] easier way? ["Easier" is a comparative adjective. It means the same thing as "more easy" (though we don't use that construction very often). It's redundant to say "more easier".]

There was a period when some people (loosely called "grammarians") thought that English should be "improved". They looked for areas of the language that seemed illogical, and created grammar rules to fix them. The question of whether you should say "it's him" or "it's he" was one of those areas. The grammarians created a rule that you have to use subject pronouns like "he" in that kind of phrase. Saying "it's him" breaks that rule.

Both written and spoken English had freely used the construction "it's him" for a long time. They continued to use both forms, but more careful writers and speakers tried to follow the artificial rule. Nowadays, well-informed lovers of English ignore it.

Some English teachers still teach their students that only "it's he" is correct. I have a feeling this is common in non-Anglophone countries.

 

[GoesStation]

Those two are fine, but some speakers of BrE would use 'has' rather than 'does.

I find myself doing the same in my American English.

 

[Matthew Wai]

Because those are 'his books' (the books that he has), not 'he' (person), right?

My understanding is that 'than', a conjunction, should be followed by a clause, 'he does/he has', rather than just a pronoun—'he'.

 

[Matthew Wai]

'than' can be a preposition.

If 'than' is used as a preposition, the object form 'him' should be used after it.
If the subject form 'he' is used, 'than' should be a conjunction.

 

[GoesStation]

You can also justify than him while accepting than as a conjunction by describing him as a disjunctive pronoun which can be an object or a subject depending on syntax.

 

[kadioguy]

Practical English Usage 3rd

136.4
pronouns after as

In an informal style we can use object pronouns (me, him etc) after as.
She doesn't sing as well as me.

In a formal style, we prefer subject + verb after as.
She doesn't sing as well as I do.

A subject form without a verb (e.g. as well as he) is unusual in this structure in modern English
-------

429.2

After as and than, object forms are generally used in an informal style.
My sister's nearly as tall as me.
I can run faster than her.

In a more formal style, subject forms are used, usually followed by verbs.
My sister's nearly as tall as I am.
I can run faster than she can.

 

[kadioguy]

So is this the definitive version?
----------------

He is as old as I (am)/me.
He is not as/so old as I (am)/me.

He is older than I (am)/me.
He is younger than I (am)/me.

She is more beautiful than her sister (is).
She is less beautiful than her sister (is).

I have as many books as he (does/has)/him.
I have not as/so many books as he (does/has)/him.

I have more books than he does/has.
I have fewer books than he does/has.