Ever or Never

[Tdol]

Why?

 

[Will]

Perhaps it's just me, but I use both. I don't know in which instances I use one or the other, but both are correct, and I use both. I don't think one is used more predominately than another with me.

Though, I did vote for "I have never seen it." because it seems more natural to me to use "I've never seen it."

 

[RonBee]

I voted for: "I have never seen it." But I might say "I haven't ever seen it for emphasis.

 

[Tdol]

In spoken language, the same could be achieved with 'never'. ;-))

 

[RonBee]

I haven't never seen it?

:?:

 

[Lib]

I haven't never seen it?

That's a double negative ... so if you think about it, it means you have seen it.

 

[RonBee]

"I haven't never seen it" does not mean "I have seen it" (not that I would ever say that).

 

[Tdol]

I think that's a faulty application of numerical logic to language- it is either used because of region, or possibly education, or emphasis, but I cannot agree that the conclusion of 'I ain't got nobody' is to smile and congratulate the lucky person. One case where negatives confused me was the Bob Marley song 'No woman, no cry', which I thought meant 'don't cry though\if you haven't got a woman', rather than 'don't cry, woman', which was what Mr Marley meant. ;-)

 

[RonBee]

Language is not math. Two negatives do not necessarily make a positive.

 

[Lib]

I haven't never seen it" does not mean "I have seen it" (not that I would ever say that).

But it could.

 

[Tdol]

Only if the speaker were an RP speaker going weird. ;-)

 

[Lib]

So, do you think it's correct English?

 

[Tdol]

The double negative? I don't mind it at all, but I would not teach it and advise against its use because most exams will simply mark it wrong. ;-)

 

[Will]

I heard one time that Shakespeare used many double negatives in his writing. Is this true?

 

[Tdol]

He did-
http://www.bartleby.com/185/45.html

 

[RonBee]

The double negative has a long and interesting history. From the article: "It is perfectly allowable in the Romance languages...." Apparently, if a French speaker utters a double negative it is perfectly unremarkable.

:wink:

 

[Tdol]

It's so common in London that I would rarely notice it when listening, unless the speaker were a standard English speaker

 

[Will]

That article was interesting. And where I live you can't talk to anyone, it seems like, without their uttering many double negatives.

 

[Tdol]

It seems to be something that has always been around and widely used. The aristocracy here also used them. The criticism was a middle class convention. ;-)

 

[Plenum]

Both are correct... and use depends on which type of statement, negative or positive, you find correct in the situation you find yourself in.

There's nothing to vote for or against.