U
Unregistered
Guest
Hello,
I would like to know if the phrase 'in the end of 17th century' is grammatically correct?
Is the phrase equivalent to 'in the late 17th century'?
I wonder if this sentence is correct, 'I never speak to him again for months'?
Personally, i think the sentence is a bit odd. Is there another way of saying it?
The case: Emma used to speak with Adam but she doesn't speak to him anymore and it has been for months now. (Is this sentence grammatically correct?)
Thanks in advance.
I would like to know if the phrase 'in the end of 17th century' is grammatically correct?
Is the phrase equivalent to 'in the late 17th century'?
I wonder if this sentence is correct, 'I never speak to him again for months'?
Personally, i think the sentence is a bit odd. Is there another way of saying it?
The case: Emma used to speak with Adam but she doesn't speak to him anymore and it has been for months now. (Is this sentence grammatically correct?)
Thanks in advance.