[Grammar] Have had..

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rambharosey

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When meaning of both the sentences below is the same, why does "had had" change to "have had" in the second sentence?

He claimed that he had had that cycle for 10 years.

He claimed to have had that cycle for 10 years.

Similarly, "had seen" changes to "have seen", despite the fact that the meaning does not change

He pretended that he had seen the movie.

He pretended to have seen the movie.
 
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emsr2d2

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Because "to had had" doesn't exist in English.

He had had that bike for ten years.
He claimed that he had had that bike for ten years.
He claimed to have had that bike for ten years.
 
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