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jack

Senior Member
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Apr 24, 2004
Are these correct and what do they mean?

1. You guys should have had this guy killed.
2. You guys should have had killed him.
3. You guys should have killed him.
 

Steven D

Senior Member
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Member Type
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jack said:
Are these correct and what do they mean?

1. You guys should have had this guy killed.
2. You guys should have had killed him.
3. You guys should have killed him.


Sentence number two is not correct.

1. You guys should have had this guy killed. - This means it was advisable for "you guys" to hire someone to kill "this guy", but "you guys" didn't for some reason. It could also mean that it was a good idea - advisable - for you guys to ask someone to kill "this guy". It doesn't have to mean that "you guys" had to hire someone. "You guys" could have asked someone from within the "organization" to kill "this guy". Someone from within the "organization" would already be on the payroll, so "you guys" wouldn't have had to hire someone to kill "this guy".

3. You guys should have killed him. - This means that it was advisable, or a good idea, for "you guys" to kill "him", but for some reason "you guys" didn't do it.


2. You guys should have had killed him. - This is not correct.

to have "someone" do something - Here, "have" is being used as a causative verb. It is used with the past modal form "should have + past participle". In this case the past participle is "had", which is also the verb. The object pronoun "him" should follow "had".

should have had him killed

Here's another example so that you can compare.

Your car is going to cost more money to fix now. You should have had it checked out as soon as you thought something was wrong.

You should have had it checked out. - correct

You should have had checked it out. - not correct

Here, the object pronoun also has to follow the causative verb "had", which is a past participle following "should have" - should have had it checked out
 

jack

Senior Member
Joined
Apr 24, 2004
Are these correct? If not, why?

1. I have heard people say that.
2. I have heard people saying that.
3. I have heard people said that.
What do these mean?
 

jack

Senior Member
Joined
Apr 24, 2004
Are these correct? If not, why? What does it mean?


1. I have dry skin.
2. I have dried skin. (If it is incorrect, why no present perfect here?)
 

Casiopea

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Sep 21, 2003
Member Type
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jack said:
Are these correct? If not, why? What does it mean?


1. I have dry skin.
2. I have dried skin. (If it is incorrect, why no present perfect here?)

In other words,

1. My skin is dry, as opposed to moist. :D
2. My skin has been dried by a process. :shock:

Note that, for example, meat is dried, giving dried meat. The skin of an animal can be dried, too, giving dried skin (i.e., a dried pelt), but human skin is 'dry'; if dried (i.e., dried out of its moisture) it means, the skin is no longer living). :wink:

All the best, 8)
 

jack

Senior Member
Joined
Apr 24, 2004
Are these correct? What do they mean?

1. I have never had make up since
2. I had never had make up since.
3. I had never have make up since.
4. I have never have make up since.
 

Casiopea

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1. I have never had make-up since. :D (present perfect)
2. I had never had make-up since. :D (past perfect)

3. I had never have make-up since. :(
4. I have never have make-up since. :(

Note, make up is a verb; make-up is a noun. :wink:

All the best, :D
 

jack

Senior Member
Joined
Apr 24, 2004
Note, make up is a verb; make-up is a noun

1. I have never killed him. (This is a verb, and it's correct?)
2. I have never had make-up before. (Is it b/c Make-up needs to be a noun b/c it is not an adjective?
 

Casiopea

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Sep 21, 2003
Member Type
Other
jack said:
Note, make up is a verb; make-up is a noun

1. I have never killed him. (This is a verb, and it's correct?)
2. I have never had make-up before. (Is it b/c Make-up needs to be a noun b/c it is not an adjective?

I'm not sure I understand what you are asking. Sorry. :oops:

In 1., 'never', a frequency adverb, is not compatible with 'kill him', a telic verb (i.e., it happens once; he dies once), unless that is we're talking about animate beings that never die or have more than one life, as in a video game. So, 1. is grammatical if we're talking about a video game, and it's not grammatical if we are talking about a human being.

In 2., 'make-up' functions as a noun. If we replaced it with a verb, the result is ungrammatical,

EX: I have never had make up before. (Not OK)

The above sentence is ungrammatical for two reasons: 1) 'had' is a transitive verb, which means it needs an object. 'make up' is not an object (i.e. a nominal: noun, adjective, preposition); It's a verb. 2) There are two verbs in the sentence: 'have...had' and 'make up'. A sentence has one verb only. In order to make the sentence grammatical, we have to omit one of the verbs and we have to add an object. We can do that by changing the verb 'make up' to its nominal form 'make-up'. That hyphen (-) sure is important. :D

All the best, :D
 

jack

Senior Member
Joined
Apr 24, 2004
Do these make sense? What do they mean?

1. For the last two days, I had six hours of sleep.
2. For the last two days, I have six hours of sleep?
 

Tdol

Editor, UsingEnglish.com
Staff member
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Member Type
English Teacher
Native Language
British English
Home Country
UK
Current Location
Japan
I have had two hours' sleep in the last two days.
;-)
 

jack

Senior Member
Joined
Apr 24, 2004
So I can't use these ones? Why not?
1. For the last two days, I had six hours of sleep.
2. For the last two days, I have six hours of sleep?

Are these correct? If so, what do they mean?
3. I never had this problem before.
4. I never have this problem before.
 

Tdol

Editor, UsingEnglish.com
Staff member
Joined
Nov 13, 2002
Member Type
English Teacher
Native Language
British English
Home Country
UK
Current Location
Japan
1&2- the tense are wrong- 'the last two days' is a period of time beginning in the past and continuing to now, so that past tense doesn't work becaus eitdoesn't continue to now and the present doesn't work because it doesn't go back into the past.

3 isOK, though I would use the presentperfect. This usage is, I believe, more common in American Enlgish. 4 Doesn't work. ;-)
 

jack

Senior Member
Joined
Apr 24, 2004
Thanks.

1&2- the tense are wrong.

Are these correct?
1. The tense are wrong. (Is this correct? Why isn't 'tense' plural?)
2. The tense is wrong. (Correct? How do you know if 'tense' is singular or plural?)

What do these mean?
3. You need to watch what you have said.
4. You need to watch what you had said.
5. You need to watch what you say.
6. You need to watch what you said.
 
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