[Grammar] have to

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kjihu101

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“Thus, any system of romanisation, including a system for romanising the Korean language, is for the use and benefit of people who do not speak that particular language and probably will not have to time to learn to do so.”

I've seen this sentence on James H. Grayson's paper, who is Professor of Modern Korean Studies at The University of Sheffield. Anyway, I wonder why there is the word 'to' between the verb 'have' and the noun 'time'. I've thought only the infinitive form of verbs can come after 'have to'. I would very appreciate it if you could answer my question or correct my sentences.
 
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teechar

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It's a mistake. It should not be there or should be changed to "the". It could have been a typo.
 

teechar

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I [STRIKE]'ve seen[/STRIKE] saw this sentence in a paper by [STRIKE]on[/STRIKE] James H. Grayson, [STRIKE]'s paper,[/STRIKE] who is Professor of Modern Korean Studies at The University of Sheffield. Anyway, I wonder why there is the word 'to' between the verb 'have' and the noun 'time'. I thought only the infinitive form of verbs can come after 'have to'. I would (very much) appreciate it if you could answer my question or correct my sentences.
.
 
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