[Idiom] have use of

hhtt21

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"He was unmarried and so had no use of the commodious house in the College to which he was entitled, but lived in rooms there."

Would you pleaese explain the part "had no use of" in the above sentence? Does it mean "there was no need"?
 

GoesStation

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Your understanding is correct.

Oxford doesn't date its examples, but this one is probably at least a hundred years old.
 

hhtt21

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Your understanding is correct.

Oxford doesn't date its examples, but this one is probably at least a hundred years old.

Do you mean it doesn't update its examples and the structure "have no use of" is old-fashioned?
 

emsr2d2

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No, GS meant that Oxford doesn't put a year next to its examples. He thinks that example might have been created about a hundred years ago. If Oxford did date its examples, it might look something like:

"He was unmarried and so had no use of the commodious house in the College to which he was entitled, but lived in rooms there." (1918)

However, the structure of the entire sentence is quite old-fashioned.
 

hhtt21

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No, GS meant that Oxford doesn't put a year next to its examples. He thinks that example might have been created about a hundred years ago. If Oxford did date its examples, it might look something like:

"He was unmarried and so had no use of the commodious house in the College to which he was entitled, but lived in rooms there." (1918)

However, the structure of the entire sentence is quite old-fashioned.

I.e "had no use of" is quite old-fashioned. What is its modern times version?
 

GoesStation

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Had no use for​ is also possible.
 

jutfrank

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I don't think have use of something is particularly old-fashioned.
 
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