He had the peach to himself.

[keannu]

What's the difference between 1 and 2? What is the function of "to himself" here? It sounds really awkward to me.

1. He had the peach.
2. He had the peach to himself.

 

[probus]

It is an idiom. To have something to oneself means to enjoy exclusive possession and use of it, with absolutely no need to share it with anyone else. A Canadian example: If we can just get rid of those pesky Russians and Scandinavians, we'll have the whole Arctic to ourselves.

 

[BobK]

:up: So 'He had the peach to himself' is quite unlikely, unless peach-sharing is the norm. But many holiday-makers say things like "It was lovely, and totally off the beaten track. We had the beach to ourselves.'

b

 

[BobK]

Afterthought: don't be confused (if you are) by similar expressions in other languages - e.g. comerse. If this isn't relevant to your question, forget it. ;-)

b