He had the peach to himself.

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keannu

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What's the difference between 1 and 2? What is the function of "to himself" here? It sounds really awkward to me.

1. He had the peach.
2. He had the peach to himself.
 

probus

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It is an idiom. To have something to oneself means to enjoy exclusive possession and use of it, with absolutely no need to share it with anyone else. A Canadian example: If we can just get rid of those pesky Russians and Scandinavians, we'll have the whole Arctic to ourselves.
 

BobK

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:up: So 'He had the peach to himself' is quite unlikely, unless peach-sharing is the norm. But many holiday-makers say things like "It was lovely, and totally off the beaten track. We had the beach to ourselves.'

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BobK

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Afterthought: don't be confused (if you are) by similar expressions in other languages - e.g. comerse. If this isn't relevant to your question, forget it. ;-)

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