[Grammar] Is the sentence right?

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roseriver1012

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His father, who was a millionaire, died, to leave him nothing.

Is the part "to leave" right in grammar? And what kind of meaning does it express? Thanks!
 

emsr2d2

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His father, who was a millionaire, died, to leave him nothing.

Is the part "to leave" right in grammar? And what kind of meaning does it express? Thanks!

It's unnatural. We would say "His father, who was a millionaire, died, leaving him nothing.

It means that the man's millionaire father died and the man did not inherit anything at all in his father's will.
 

Rover_KE

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Roseriver, A better title would have been 'to leave him nothing'.

'Thread titles should include all or part of the word/phrase being discussed.'
 

roseriver1012

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It's unnatural. We would say "His father, who was a millionaire, died, leaving him nothing.

It means that the man's millionaire father died and the man did not inherit anything at all in his father's will.

According to the so-called explanation as to the sentence I give, "to leave him nothing" stresses the result of his father's death. So

the infinitive is used. Do you agree with that?
 

5jj

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No. Whose explanation of the sentence is this?
 

Barb_D

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According to the so-called explanation as to the sentence I give, "to leave him nothing" stresses the result of his father's death. So

the infinitive is used. Do you agree with that?

To the contrary, it implies that he died for the purpose of leaving him nothing (not just an end result).
She dove into the icy water to save her son. - "to save her son" is the purpose of diving in.
"to leave him nothing" is not the purpose of his dying.
 
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