It is made definite and takes the definite article

[moseen]

Hello all,
In the sentence below, definite in " it is made definite " hasn't "the" but in definite in "takes the definite article" has "the", why?

if the noun is followed by a relative clause (who/which/that) or a prepositional phrase (of/in/to...), it is made definite and takes the definite article.

Reference: http://advice.writing.utoronto.ca/english-language/definite-article/.

 

[moseen]

You mean, because of "definit" is an adjective and it cant take the "the"?

 

[teechar]

Because the 'the' is (being) used for (definite) article, a noun phrase.

I suppose that's what Piscean meant to write.

 

[Matthew Wai]

You mean, because of "definit" is an adjective and it cant take the "the"?

There are exceptions like the rich, the poor, the deceased, and the departed.

 

[teechar]

Hello all,
In the sentence below, [STRIKE] definite in[/STRIKE] "it is made definite" hasn't (got) "the", but [STRIKE]in definite in[/STRIKE] "takes the definite article" has "the". Why?

if the noun is followed by a relative clause (who/which/that) or a prepositional phrase (of/in/to...), it is made definite and takes the definite article.

Reference: [STRIKE]http://advice.writing.utoronto.ca/english-language/definite-article/[/STRIKE]
http://advice.writing.utoronto.ca/wp-content/uploads/sites/2/definite-article.pdf
.

See above.

You mean it's because [STRIKE]of[/STRIKE] the first "definite" is an adjective and it can't take the "the"?

Yes.