It is made definite and takes the definite article

moseen

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Hello all,
In the sentence below, definite in " it is made definite " hasn't "the" but in definite in "takes the definite article" has "the", why?

if the noun is followed by a relative clause (who/which/that) or a prepositional phrase (of/in/to...), it is made definite and takes the definite article.

Reference: http://advice.writing.utoronto.ca/english-language/definite-article/.
 

moseen

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You mean, because of "definit" is an adjective and it cant take the "the"?
 

teechar

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Because the 'the' is (being) used for (definite) article, a noun phrase.
I suppose that's what Piscean meant to write. :)
 

Matthew Wai

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You mean, because of "definit" is an adjective and it cant take the "the"?
There are exceptions like the rich, the poor, the deceased, and the departed.
 
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teechar

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Hello all,
In the sentence below, [STRIKE] definite in[/STRIKE] "it is made definite" hasn't (got) "the", but [STRIKE]in definite in[/STRIKE] "takes the definite article" has "the". Why?

if the noun is followed by a relative clause (who/which/that) or a prepositional phrase (of/in/to...), it is made definite and takes the definite article.

Reference: [STRIKE]http://advice.writing.utoronto.ca/english-language/definite-article/[/STRIKE]
http://advice.writing.utoronto.ca/wp-content/uploads/sites/2/definite-article.pdf
.
See above.

You mean it's because [STRIKE]of[/STRIKE] the first "definite" is an adjective and it can't take the "the"?
Yes.
 
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