No nstive speaker would ever say 'It is I' - not 'It's I' - unless they were being consciously arch, sarcastic, or fun-poking - or all three simultaneously. Contemporary Germans say 'Ich bin es', lit. "I am it", so presumably the pre-Conquest English said something similar. But the post-Conquest influence of French 'C'est moi' produced 'It's me' by analogy, and everybody was happy for a few centuries until fusspot Classics-soaked grammarians argued that by analogy with Latin the "correct" usage should be 'It is I'. Unfortunately, the only people who paid any attention to this hypercorrection were English teachers who have inflicted it on countless generations of schoolchildren. If you don't believe that 'It's me' is just fine, just try saying 'It is I' to native speakers and see how they react.
Going along the same line, I have a few more questions that've been bothering me.
There's a thread earlier this week asking for verification on the correction the person recieved from his/her teacher in regards to using the pronoun at the end of her sentence, and Angelika agreed with the correction. I don't remember the exact sentence in question, but the structure of the sentence is as such:
"Her brother willl reside at the same address as her."
Apparently, "her" is right correct pronoun here. My question is why not "she" as "she" would be the pronoun would have been used if we were to complete the omitted part of the sentence:
"Her brother will reside at the same address as she does (or resides....)"
That's the grammar I was taught at school that the correct use of subjective and objective pronoun prevent unecessary confusion as demonstrated bellow:
"The husband loves the son more than she"--we know that "she" loves the son too. Whereas,
"the husband lvoes the son more than her"--indicating that "her" is loved less by the husband.
That's how I was taught at school. But now I'm not so sure of it. So Putting aside the self-promoting grammarians, do you ever use subjective pronouns at the end of a sentence (excluding those come in a form of question, of course)? If yes, when do you and when don't you, if ever? Could you give some examples?
This depends on how much you want your sentence to sound like real spoken English.
For real spoken English, It is me...
For grammatically correct unnatural-sounding grammar-book English, it is I....
that by the way sounds a bit archaic...
I find it interesting that Dr. Grammar writes:
"It is I or it is me? According to the Merriam Webster's Dictionary of the English Language,"...instead of the old choice between right and wrong we are now choosing a style; it is a choice that is much closer to the reality of usage than the old one was...Clearly, both the it is I and it's me patterns are in reputable use and have been for a considerable time. It is I tends to be used in more formal or more stuffy situations; it's me predominates in real and fictional speech and in a more relaxed writing style."
It reminds me of "how are you? I am good" instead of "fine". Every one has been using (predominantly ) " I am good" which became commonly accepted. I encounter simliar language situation in my native language too. I mean, this is one of those odd instances where the gramatically incorrect form is so commonplace that it's now considered correct. What do you think?
Generally, speaking, I avoid using the words "correct" and "incorrect". Those terms are used by prescriptivist grammarians to tell native speakers how to speak their own language. When I do say "It is correct" I say it to mean "It is used, and it is accepted". If the majority use the expression "I'm good" it is good. I might not use the expression myself, but I would not say it is incorrect.