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mengta

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Feb 10, 2004
John smith is forecasting a $1 billion profit for the company,after losses totalling $2 billion since 2000.

in the sentence,it's a loss to whom?
john smith or the company??i am confused.

besides,does the sentence mean "...after "subject" has lost $2 billion in total since 2000?if so,why uses "losses"?

thanks
 

RonBee

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The people who have lost money are the investors. The word "losses" probably refers to more than one year in which money was lost.

:)
 
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