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mengta

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John smith is forecasting a $1 billion profit for the company,after losses totalling $2 billion since 2000.

in the sentence,it's a loss to whom?
john smith or the company??i am confused.

besides,does the sentence mean "...after "subject" has lost $2 billion in total since 2000?if so,why uses "losses"?

thanks
 

Casiopea

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mengta said:
John smith is forecasting a $1 billion profit for the company,after losses totalling $2 billion since 2000.

in the sentence,it's a loss to whom?
john smith or the company??i am confused.

besides,does the sentence mean "...after "subject" has lost $2 billion in total since 2000?if so,why uses "losses"?

thanks

'...$1 billion profit for the company,...'
==> The company will profit $1 billion.

'...after losses totalling $2 billion....'
==> The company lost $2 billion.

'..., after losses'
==> 'losses' is a plural noun

:)
 

MikeNewYork

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mengta said:
John smith is forecasting a $1 billion profit for the company,after losses totalling $2 billion since 2000.

in the sentence,it's a loss to whom?
john smith or the company??i am confused.

besides,does the sentence mean "...after "subject" has lost $2 billion in total since 2000?if so,why uses "losses"?

thanks

If this article was written in 2004, the sentence is saying that John Smith's company lost a total of $2 billion in the years 2000-2003, but he is predicting a profit of $1 billion in 2004. That would be a remarkable achievement. :wink:
 

mengta

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Feb 10, 2004
from the structure of the sentence,how do you know the loss refers to the company instead of john smith?
MikeNewYork said:
mengta said:
John smith is forecasting a $1 billion profit for the company,after losses totalling $2 billion since 2000.

in the sentence,it's a loss to whom?
john smith or the company??i am confused.

besides,does the sentence mean "...after "subject" has lost $2 billion in total since 2000?if so,why uses "losses"?

thanks

If this article was written in 2004, the sentence is saying that John Smith's company lost a total of $2 billion in the years 2000-2003, but he is predicting a profit of $1 billion in 2004. That would be a remarkable achievement. :wink:
 

MikeNewYork

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mengta said:
from the structure of the sentence,how do you know the loss refers to the company instead of john smith?

We know it because he talks about "profits for the company". It would be a strange sentence if he switched from company profit to personal loss.

:shock:
 

Casiopea

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mengta said:
John smith is forecasting a $1 billion profit for the company,after losses totalling $2 billion since 2000.

in the sentence,it's a loss to whom?
john smith or the company??i am confused.

besides,does the sentence mean "...after "subject" has lost $2 billion in total since 2000?if so,why uses "losses"?

thanks

'for the company' means, the company benefits e.g. The gift is for you.

:D
 
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