tdol said:What part of speech is 'not' here?
tdol said:What do you think of the current usage of 'particle' for 'not'? ;-)
I think of phrasal verbs consisting of verb & adverb combinations.
Some use the term particle for 'not' and 'to' as the infinitive marker.
Which do you use? I would only use 'I' in very formal conversations.
According to traditional grammarians (Prescriptivist), linking verbs such as forms of 'to be' (is, are, was, were, etc.) link the subject with its complement. Complements refer back to the subject so they are considered 'nominative' (subject) in form. Which means, pronouns coming after the linking verb 'to be' should be nominative in form: I, she, he, we, they. For example,
But, keep in mind, those examples are based on what Prescriptivists would advise. As for Descriptivists, they'd point out that "me" is more popular these days than "I". The reason being, the pronoun comes after the verb which is a position reserved for objects, and hence speakers tend to choose "me" over "I" in that context.
Excuse me, finally which is the right answer, I'm really confused by all this explanations..:-|
So, If we use both, isn't wrong???
Out of interest, Riverkid, how are you excluding non-complements from your googles?
For instance, a simple google on "it was I" brings up cases such as:
I made no attempt to exclude non-complements, Mr Pedantic. I didn't do a simple google. I did an "with the exact phrase" search. Admittedly they aren't perfect, but they clearly indicate that these are very common collocations.
Yes, they are very common; but if you look at the first three pages of the "exact search" on "it was I", for example, you'll find that 10 out of 30 (at most) relate to "It was I" in the sense "it was me".