objective or subjective case of a pronoun?

[Takako Shimokawa]

Hi all,
I have a question about a pronoun.

1. Let him who is without sin cast the first stone.
2. It was I who struck him.
I think 1&2 are correct because "Let" takes the objective case of a pronoun, and the verb to be requires the subjective case of a pronoun.

I'm confused about the sentences below:
3. It was me whom he struck.
4. It was I whom he struck.
There is an argument between my friend and me.

Which is grammatically correct?

Thanks

 

[Hi_there_Carl]

I think you are right about 1 & 2.

I think 3-4 should be: "It was me whom he struck." (He struck me not He struck I) ;-)

 

[David L.]

4. It was I whom he struck.
This is grammatically correct, in the use of the subjective case "I" after 'was':, and in the use of 'whom'. However, this now sounds too formal, too correct to the ears of native speakers, and so colloquially, you will hear people break those rules and say,
It was me whom he struck.
and even more likely,
It was me who he struck.

 

[Takako Shimokawa]

I think you are right about 1 & 2.

I think 3-4 should be: "It was me whom he struck." (He struck me not He struck I) ;-)

4. It was I whom he struck.
This is grammatically correct, in the use of the subjective case "I" after 'was':, and in the use of 'whom'. However, this now sounds too formal, too correct to the ears of native speakers, and so colloquially, you will hear people break those rules and say,
It was me whom he struck.
and even more likely,
It was me who he struck.

Thank you for the explanations.
I really appreciate it :-D

These kind of things always confuse me.

 

[made men]

4. It was I whom he struck.
This is grammatically correct, in the use of the subjective case "I" after 'was':, and in the use of 'whom'. However, this now sounds too formal, too correct to the ears of native speakers, and so colloquially, you will hear people break those rules and say,
It was me whom he struck.
and even more likely,
It was me who he struck.

I agree with you!

thanks