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[Grammar] Proper improper use of an apostrophe

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Azero

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Hello everyone. So here's the deal. I'm trying to come up with a band name that uses the word, "nobody's." Truth is, there is no band, it's just me. I am fully aware of 'nobodies' but to me, 'RD & the Nobody's' simply looks better and may even have a subtle difference in pronunciation compared to nobodies. I'm not trying to show ownership, I just want pluralization with the nobody without the 'ies'...Could this be acceptable?
-thank you, I appreciate any insight
 

teechar

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Hello Azero, and welcome to the forum. :)
I can't see a pronunciation difference between "nobodies" and "nobody's". However, I would not use "nobody's" in your context. I can't see anything wrong with "nobodies."
 

GoesStation

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There's no difference in pronunciation. If you use nobody's as a plural, people who care and notice such things will think you don't know where to use apostrophes.
 

jutfrank

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I wonder why you think nobody's looks better? To us it looks wrong.
 

SoothingDave

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It's rock and roll. Not exactly sticklers for grammar.
 

emsr2d2

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If you don't want to use "Nobodies", I'd go with "Nobodys" (no apostrophe). It's an incorrect spelling but that doesn't matter much. It will cause a lot less confusion than the version with the apostrophe.
 
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