Purpose Of, For

[mitig]

1 "He has no intention for marriage."
2 "He has no intention of marriage."

3 "He has no purpose for marriage."
4 "He has no purpose of marriage."

The first two sentences are good English and have the same meaning. Now, because "intention" almost means the same thing as "purpose", could the last two sentences be okay?

The motivation of this question came from this:

( uniontwp.com/2012Minutes/Minutes%2008-13-12%20Board%20Meeting.pdf )

A review of the grading permit showed that the permit had not been modified from its original purpose which was for a minimum use driveway for a mobile home.

 

[JMurray]

not a teacher

1 "He has no intention for marriage."
2 "He has no intention of marriage."

3 "He has no purpose for marriage."
4 "He has no purpose of marriage."

I feel that none of these sentences is natural English, although #3 may convey the unlikely meaning: "He can not put marriage to any use".
For the meaning that I think you intend, common phrases would be, "He has no intention to marry", "He has no intention of getting married", "He has no intention of marrying".

ps: I keep thinking #2 might be ok, I'd be interested in another opinion.

 

[5jj]

ps: I keep thinking #2 might be ok, I'd be interested in another opinion.

I think it might be OK, but I would use only 'of marrying/getting married'.

COCA has nine citations for 'intention of marrying', five of them being 'no intention of marrying'.

It has 21 citations for 'intention to marry', none for 'no intention to marry'.

It has only one citation for 'intention of marriage' - '...sexual intercourse with the intention of marriage'.