[Grammar] Regarding the use of Verb

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Joe333

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Sentence : "The TRPs of reality shows are very poor. None of them are/is in top 10 serials. And Star, the maker of kid's reality shows, is on 4th number in TRP list."

My question: Which verb would be correct to use after the word "none of them", are or is ? It's giving me lots of confusion, so please help me clarify this doubt.


Regards and thanks
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Reemy

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The rule according to Oxford Dictionary is:

When you use none of with an uncountable noun, the verb is in the singular: (None of the work was done.)

When you use none of with a plural noun or pronoun, or a singular noun referring to a group of people or things, you can use either a singular or a plural verb. The singular form is used in a formal style in BrE: (None of the trains is/are going to London). ( None of her family has/have been to college.)

I hope this will allay your doubt! :)
 
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Joe333

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Oct 16, 2008
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Student or Learner
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Tamil
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Sri Lanka
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The rule according to Oxford Dictionary is:

When you use none of with an uncountable noun, the verb is in the singular: (None of the work was done.)

When you use none of with a plural noun or pronoun, or a singular noun referring to a group of people or things, you can use either a singular or a plural verb. The singular form is used in a formal style in BrE: (None of the trains is/are going to London). ( None of her family has/have been to college.)

I hope this will allay your doubt! :)

Thanks, now my doubt is cleared :)
 
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