A
Anonymous
Guest
Where I currently live, in Ohio, I've encountered a grammatical practice that seems acceptable both in this state, WV, KY, and parts of PA. Perhaps this is acceptable in other regions as well. Here it is:
Growing up in NC, the first I ever heard this was when I moved up here: "My lawn needs mowed," as opposed to "My lawn needs to be mowed." "My car needs washed," rather than "My car needs to be washed."
This lost "to be" really threw me. In fact, I thought my hearing was going as I wasn't hearing this infinitive. Where I lived for over 30 years, before moving here, I had never heard it. And anyone who would speak in such a way would be considered uneducated. (Let's not start the "dumb Southerner" jokes, please.)
Is there a grammatical rule that addresses this practice either way? Please reply to me at cigaroo@yahoo.com if you can. Thank you very much.
Growing up in NC, the first I ever heard this was when I moved up here: "My lawn needs mowed," as opposed to "My lawn needs to be mowed." "My car needs washed," rather than "My car needs to be washed."
This lost "to be" really threw me. In fact, I thought my hearing was going as I wasn't hearing this infinitive. Where I lived for over 30 years, before moving here, I had never heard it. And anyone who would speak in such a way would be considered uneducated. (Let's not start the "dumb Southerner" jokes, please.)
Is there a grammatical rule that addresses this practice either way? Please reply to me at cigaroo@yahoo.com if you can. Thank you very much.