"to be"

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Dominik92

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Hi all.

In the first sentence it is possible to omit "to be" - but it can be there, it is up to me.

However, in the second sentence it would be a mistake to use "to be" right after "feel". Why is it that? What is the rule? If there is any.....Thanks for helping.


1) A mortgage seems (to be) a costly way to....
2)
I feel [STRIKE]to be[/STRIKE] lucky......
 

Skrej

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The verb 'seem' is one which can be followed by an infinitive.

The verb 'feel' usually isn't followed by an infinitive. It is possible to follow it with a bare infinitive, if the infinitive is preceded by an object. However, since that construction is used to express a completed action, 'be' doesn't work very well.
 
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