whom (not the subject)

[Unregistered]

Hi

Why did the writer use "he' and not "him" in this sentence?


It is he whom the committee has chosen

thank you

 

[kfredson]

Hi

Why did the writer use "he' and not "him" in this sentence?


It is he whom the committee has chosen

thank you

That is a challenging question, indeed! Consider it this way.
Person One: "It is he!"
Person Two: "Who?"
Person One: "You know, the man chosen by the committee."
Person Two: "Oh, so he is the one whom the committee has chosen!"
Person One: "Yes, it is he whom the committee has chosen."

The point is that two independent clauses have, in effect, been joined together:
It is he.
The committee has chosen him (which, when you reverse it, becomes "whom.")

I hope that is helpful. Thank you for bringing this illuminating example.

 

[2006]

Hi

Why did the writer use "he' and not "him" in this sentence?
It is he whom the committee has chosen

The reason is that according to the rules of formal English, object pronouns, such as 'him', cannot follow any form of the verb 'to be'.
(The verb 'to be' is a linking verb.)

But common usage prefers object pronouns like 'him'.
thank you

2006

 

[corum]

Hi

Why did the writer use "he' and not "him" in this sentence?


It is he whom the committee has chosen

thank you

Whom the committe has chosen is he.

Nominal subjective complements are assigned nominal case.
The subject is 'Whom the committe has chosen'.

If we extrapose the subject we get this:
It is he whom the committee has chosen

Extraposition of subject does not affect case.
Why whom? The committe has chosen whom. The relative pronoun functions as the direct object of 'has chosen'. Object pronouns are assigned accusative case.