without representation

[keannu]

What does this "representation" mean historically? I guess England taxed America, which probably angered them to try to gain independence, but how is "representataion" related here?

st210)Before the political separation between America and England , there was a cultural separation that can be traced to American conditions ; and the cultural separation was what led to the desire among Americans for political separation. The beliefs Americans had enculturated by 1760 made the issue of taxation without representation so momentous that they were willing to go to war over it. The king of England and majorities in the House of Lords and the House of Commons never believed

 

[SoothingDave]

I am impressed that you are studying the American revolution and its causes.

The idea of "representation" here is that of a representative in the legislative body in Parliament. It is a principle of the English system of gov't (as I understand it as an American who inherited many aspects of it) that all taxes are to be raised by the legislature (and not the King). The people retain the right and the responsibility to ensure the funding of the gov't that they decide to have.

During he time of the American colonies, the people who lived in America did not have representation in the British Parliament. They had no vote that made a difference in how the British gov't conducted itself and raised revenue. But they were taxed by this gov't.

This was the major cause (as we understand it today) of the revolution. The revolution started because the American colonists wanted their rights as British subjects, including the right to be represented in Parliament. There were also issue of the mercantile system and how the colonies were only supposed to supply raw materials to the mother country and buy all finished products from her.