learnerr
Member
- Joined
- Mar 30, 2011
- Member Type
- Student or Learner
- Native Language
- Korean
- Home Country
- South Korea
- Current Location
- United States
Dear teachers and English users
As a student majoring in English grammar, I got some questions.
As far as I understood, 'bare infinitives' and 'to infinitives' act as a kind of verb.
Also heard that 'bare infinitive' is the standard form of english verb.
First question : So, is it right that after the modal(or auxiliary) verb, 'bare infinitive' or 'to infinitive' is used as a verb?
ex1)) I can do it (for 'bare infinitive') ex2) I ought to do it(for 'to infinitive')
Second question is about objective complement.
I know that both 'bare infinitive' and 'to infinitive' are used as objective complement. But what are their functions?
1."He made me do it" In this case, I think "do"(bare infinitive) does work as neither a noun nor adjective. In my opinion, it just works as some kind of verb, just as "do" in the example of "I can do it". Am I right?
2."He forced me to do it." In this case, I also think "to do"(to infinitive) does NOT work as either a noun or adjective. Think it works just like the bare infinitive above. Am I right?
If I am right, when 'to/bare infinitive' is used as objective complement, do native English-speakers accept and consider it as a kind of a verb?
I wish you could answer either of these questions. Please help me out!
As a student majoring in English grammar, I got some questions.
As far as I understood, 'bare infinitives' and 'to infinitives' act as a kind of verb.
Also heard that 'bare infinitive' is the standard form of english verb.
First question : So, is it right that after the modal(or auxiliary) verb, 'bare infinitive' or 'to infinitive' is used as a verb?
ex1)) I can do it (for 'bare infinitive') ex2) I ought to do it(for 'to infinitive')
Second question is about objective complement.
I know that both 'bare infinitive' and 'to infinitive' are used as objective complement. But what are their functions?
1."He made me do it" In this case, I think "do"(bare infinitive) does work as neither a noun nor adjective. In my opinion, it just works as some kind of verb, just as "do" in the example of "I can do it". Am I right?
2."He forced me to do it." In this case, I also think "to do"(to infinitive) does NOT work as either a noun or adjective. Think it works just like the bare infinitive above. Am I right?
If I am right, when 'to/bare infinitive' is used as objective complement, do native English-speakers accept and consider it as a kind of a verb?
I wish you could answer either of these questions. Please help me out!