[Grammar] modals and verb tenses

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donnach

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Wikepedia has the following chart on their English Verb Tense page:


basic progressive perfect perfect progressive
Future I will write I will be writing I will have written I will have been writing
Present I write I am writing I have written I have been writing
Past I wrote I was writing I had written I had been writing
Conditional I would write I would be writing I would have written I would have been writing

Here's my question: Are conditionals "outside" of tense? According to this chart, they are, correct?

Thanks!
 
The chart you mention is rather over-simplified. Most grammarians today consider that English has only two tenses - the so-called 'present' and 'past' tenses. While there are several ways of expressing futurity in English, there is no future tense as such. There is also no conditional tense. Conditions are expressed by using a range of tenses, and usually involve modals.
 
Hi,

I asked if conditionals were OUTSIDE of tense, not if they were a tense in and of themselves.

There is also no conditional tense. Conditions are expressed by using a range of tenses, and usually involve modals.
Where can I find out more about how "conditions are expressed by using a range of tenses"? Or, would someone here kindly explain this to me?

Thanks!

p.s. These questions stemmed from my trying to figure out what tense the statement "I might study later" was in. Everything's gotta have a tense, doesn't it?
 
Where can I find out more about how "conditions are expressed by using a range of tenses"? Or, would someone here kindly explain this to me?/
Try here:http://www.gramorak.com/Articles/Conditionals.pdf. If you have any specific questions, ask them in this forum.
p.s. These questions stemmed from my trying to figure out what tense the statement "I might study later" was in. Everything's [STRIKE]gotta[/STRIKE] got to have a tense, doesn't it?
"I might study" is a modal, rather than a tensed, construction.

All finite lexical verbs show tense. With modals, there is some discussion as to whether could, might, should and would are better considered as past-tense forms of can, may, shall and will respectively, or as separate modal verbs.
 
p.s. These questions stemmed from my trying to figure out what tense the statement "I might study later" was in. Everything's gotta have a tense, doesn't it?

In Spanish we've got a tense for this construction, called simple potential tense (there is also compound potential, which would be might have studied).

So, you've got fewer tenses in English. Count your blessings! Why should you complicate life for yourself? ;-)
 
So, you've got fewer tenses in English. Count your blessings! Why should you complicate life for yourself? ;-)

Ah, but no one believes you when you say there are only two. This view is widely accepted among linguists, but traditional grammars and many coursebooks still describe will as the future tense.;-)
 
Ah, but no one believes you when you say there are only two. This view is widely accepted among linguists, but traditional grammars and many coursebooks still describe will as the future tense.;-)

They're talking to you here, Fivejedjon. ;-)
 
Try here:http://www.gramorak.com/Articles/Conditionals.pdf. If you have any specific questions, ask them in this forum."I might study" is a modal, rather than a tensed, construction.

All finite lexical verbs show tense. With modals, there is some discussion as to whether could, might, should and would are better considered as past-tense forms of can, may, shall and will respectively, or as separate modal verbs.


Perfect. Thank you (After reading a 30 page .pdf on Conditionals, I should have a much better understanding. One would hope so, anyway..... :)
 
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