Why " a lowering of demands" ?

[iexcie]

I have seen this form several times only now to ask myself:

why "a lowering of demands" and not "lowering of demands"?

Lowering is uncountable, so it should not be given an article - that's the logic I know.

 

[MikeNewYork]

It is more complicated than that. Context would be helpful.

 

[iexcie]

a drop in oli prices should lead to "a lowering of intrest rates"

Let me guess: is it that lowering here stands for something like reduction - despite its gerundive apparition?

 

[MikeNewYork]

Yes, lowering stands for reduction. The indefinite article "a" here would be optional.

One could also use "to lower interest rates".

 

[iexcie]

To clarify: did you mean that even if we treat loweing as reduction, indefinite article is not obligatory, but optional?

 

[MikeNewYork]

That depends on the context. In your sentence: a drop in oil prices should lead to "a lowering of interest rates", the article is optional.

 

[SoothingDave]

If you consider today's market reaction to be one lowering and tomorrow's market reaction to be another lowering, then they are different, countable events. There was a lowering today and we expect a lowering tomorrow.