'does not' vs 'can not'

[Heidi L]

Mark Twain, one of America's most famous authors, is believed to have said "the man who does not read good books has no advantage over the man who can't read them."
(said by teacher Kralen from Studio Classroom as attached below)

I have two questions about the words said by Mark Twain.

1. What do 'does not read good books' and 'can't read them' imply? To me, someone who does not read good books suggests that maybe they don't have the habit of reading, they don't usually read books. And someone who can't read them does not mean that they're not willing to do the reading, but maybe they don't have time, or they don't like reading. How do you differentiate between 'does not' and 'can't'?

2. Why do you think that one who doesn't read good books has no advantage over someone who can't read them?

 

[jutfrank]

1) There's no point being able to read if you don't read good books.

the man who does not read good books is either someone who reads bad books or someone who does not read at all.

the man who can't read is someone who has not learnt how to read.

2) Reading good books gives you an advantage over those who do not.

 

[tedmc]

1. I agree with you on the first part, "the man who does not read good books". "The man who can't read good books" refers to someone who is unable to read because the person is illiterate. A person who can read and has the desire to read would be able to find time, and should go to the first category.

2. People who do not read or are unable to read would be deprived of a great opportunity to widen their knowledge. Admittedly there are other means to acquire knowledge but reading is probably the most important and accessible.