"from A through B" or "between A and B"

[pinkie9]

Hello,

Could anyone help me please?
I'd like to descrive an 8-day course of something.
You will have a quiz on Day 1 and Day 8 of the course but won’t have any quiz on other days of the course.
In this case, which is the correct way to describe Days 2-7?

1. You will have no quiz from Day 2 through Day 7.
2. You will have no quiz between Day 2 and Day 7.

 

[SoothingDave]

The first. The second seems to mean that there are quizzes on days 2 and 7, just not in between them.

It may be simpler to just say there will be quizzes on the first and last days only. Then there is no potential for ambiguity.

 

[FreeToyInside]

Both of the choices you gave are correct ways to say it, and are perfectly acceptable.
You could also say 'there will be no quiz(zes) days 2 through 7.'


(not a teacher, just a language lover)

 

[FreeToyInside]

The first. The second seems to mean that there are quizzes on days 2 and 7, just not in between them.

It may be simpler to just say there will be quizzes on the first and last days only. Then there is no potential for ambiguity.

I guess I should've left "both are perfectly acceptable" out of my answer! Here seems to be another of those instances where the same thing sounds different to two different speakers. I never realized there were so many of these instances until I became a member here :-D



(not a teacher, just a language lover)

 

[Rover_KE]

I'm surprised my fellow BE speakers liked Dave's reply in post #2.

We don't normally use through in specifying periods of time.

I'd say 'You will have no quiz from days 2 to 7'.

Rover

 

[5jj]

I'm surprised my fellow BE speakers liked Dave's reply in post #2.

We don't normally use through in specifying periods of time.

I accepted Dave's first two sentences as sound AmE. I particularly 'liked' his common-sense second two sentences: "It may be simpler to just say there will be quizzes on the first and last days only. Then there is no potential for ambiguity."

 

[pinkie9]

I see. Thank you so much, everyone.

I particularly 'liked' his common-sense second two sentences

I'm having a little difficulty understanding this second. I guess it means 5jj liked Dave's two sentences supported by his common-sence, but is second being used as a noun or a verb here?
(If I should start a new thread about this, please tell me so.)

 

[5jj]

I'm having a little difficulty understanding this second. I guess it means 5jj liked Dave's two sentences supported by his common-sence, but is second being used as a noun or a verb here?
(If I should start a new thread about this, please tell me so.)

It's a simple ordinal.

If Dave had written only two sentences, then I don't think you'd have any problems if I'd said 'the first (sentence)' and 'the second (sentence)'. As it was, he wrote four sentences, and I spoke of 'the first two (sentences)', i.e.'the two sentences in the first line of his post, and 'the second two (sentences)', i.e., the two sentences in the second line of his post.

 

[pinkie9]

Ah, I see. I'm ashamed that I didn't notice it.
Thank you again for your kind reply!

 

[BobSmith]

Also notice that Dave (and FreeToy) changed "quiz" to "quizzes".

 

[pinkie9]

Also notice that Dave (and FreeToy) changed "quiz" to "quizzes".

Thank you for pointing that out. Actually I'm not sure about the rule of when to use the plural form or singular form after "no" about countable nouns.

There is a Japanese website which explains the rule as follows:
Countable nouns after "no" can be used both in the singular form and in the plural form.
However, for things that do not usually exist alone, the plural form is used in general.
Example 1. My grandmother has no teeth. (Because people usually have more than one tooth.)
Example 2. I have no wife (in a country of monogamy). I have no wives (in a country of polygamy).
According to this rule, I thought "there will be no quiz" was okay because there is not always more than one quiz.
Is this rule incorrect? If so, please tell me the correct rule. Thank you.