[General] I 'd been

[suniljain]

I 'd been given a glimpse of a great success.

Is 'd stands for "had" here? I understand on the basis of sentences we need to make it whether it is had or would.

 

[teechar]

I'd [no space] been given a glimpse of a great success.

[STRIKE] Is[/STRIKE] Does 'd stand for "had" here? I understand [STRIKE]on the basis of sentences we need to make it whether it is[/STRIKE] it can be either "had" or "would".

If you try "would", you get "I would been given ....".
"would been" is impossible in English.

 

[suniljain]

If you try "would", you get "I would been given ....".
"would been" is impossible in English.

Why can't we use "Is" instead of "Does"? Please help me to understand it.

Does it mean that 'd would always be "had" only? Thanks

 

[teechar]

Why can't we use "Is" instead of "Does"? Please help me to understand it.

Read the explanation in the following link, and if you still have problems, post below.
https://www.bbc.co.uk/worldservice/learningenglish/grammar/learnit/learnitv321.shtml

Does it mean that 'd would always be "had" only?

No, of course it doesn't!

Here are some examples of when it's short for "would".

I'd like a pound of sausages please.
He'd pay you, but he hasn't got the money right now.

Note that the verbs in the above two examples are in base form.

https://www.gymglish.com/en/gymglish/english-grammar/contractions-would-vs-had