I have not seen Sam for years.

[Peter Chung]

Is there any difference in meaning between the following sentences?
1. I have not seen Sam for years.
2. I have not seen Sam in years.

Which of the following sentences is correct?
3. This is one of the best I have seen for years.
4. This is one of the best I have seen in years.

In what ways does the phrase "for years" differ from "in years"?

Thanks a lot.

 

[Raymott]

They mean the same to me.

 

[Matthew Wai]

Is there any difference

Would it be more natural to use 'a' instead of 'any' above?

 

[TheParser]

***** NOT A TEACHER *****


Hello, Mr. Chung:

Many years ago, I read a sentence in a British publication that said something like this:

"The Times [newspaper in the United Kingdom] has been banned in the country of [deleted by me]. It is the first time for three years that it has been banned in [ ]."

I had to stop reading, for I was so shocked.

Here in the United States, I am pretty sure that many (most?) people would have used in.

 

[Tdol]

It's perfectly natural in British English.

 

[Skrej]

They both work equally well for me in AmE as well, and I alternate between both of them in my own speech.

 

[MikeNewYork]

Piscean, you BrE speakers seem to have some unwritten code about formal and informal. Care to share?

 

[MikeNewYork]

That is one example, chosen to be very obvious.

 

[MikeNewYork]

Piscean, my post was prompted by your post #3.