[Grammar] I'd rather we eat/ate at home, if you don't mind

[kadioguy]

[My original conversation]

John: Shall we go out for lunch at lunchtime?

Mary:
a. No, I'd rather we eat at home, if you don't mind.
b. No, I'd rather we ate at home, if you don't mind.
------

1. Do (a) and (b) mean the same?

2. What different effects exist between them? What does the subjunctive in (b) mean?

 

[tedmc]

[My original conversation]

John: Shall we go out for lunch at lunchtime?

Mary:
a. No, I'd rather we eat at home, if you don't mind.
b. No, I'd rather we ate at home, if you don't mind.
------

1. Do (a) and (b) mean the same?

2. What [STRIKE]different effects exist[/STRIKE] is the difference between them? What does the subjunctive in (b) mean?

The past subjunctive in (b) is used when we would like someone else to do something. Otherwise, the simple present (a) is used if the subject is the same as the verb, which is correct in this case.

 

[Tarheel]

Try this.

John: Do you want to go out for lunch? Or maybe order something for delivery?
Mary: I'd rather eat here. I'm going to cook something for us, okay?

 

[kadioguy]

Both forms are possible, but the past simple is more common ln this construction. The reference, depending on context, is to present/general or future time.

a. No, I'd rather we eat at home, if you don't mind.

b. No, I'd rather we ate at home, if you don't mind.

So does (b) have any especial effects that (a) doesn't? For example, more polite, more indirect, or less likely to happen.

 

[kadioguy]

a. No, I'd rather we eat at home, if you don't mind.

b. No, I'd rather we ate at home, if you don't mind.

So does (b) have any especial effects that (a) doesn't? For example, more polite, more indirect, or less likely to happen.

I assume that they are just a choice of style.

Could someone tell me about that? :-?

 

[tedmc]

Where did you come across this idea?

Here.

 

[kadioguy]

OK. You did not quote what was said there accurately.

What do you mean? Could you please explain it more?

 

[Winwin2011]

Here.

Not a teacher

[FONT=&quot]• [/FONT][FONT=&quot]Would rather[/FONT][FONT=&quot] is followed by a past subjunctive when its subject is [/FONT]different[FONT=&quot] than the subject of the following verb.

[/FONT][FONT=&quot]I'd rather (that) you came another time.[/FONT][FONT=&quot]

[/FONT]Does it mean that "I'd rather you come another time" is grammatical incorrect?

[FONT=&quot]



[/FONT]

 

[YAMATO2201]

• Would rather is followed by a past subjunctive when its subject is different than the subject of the following verb.

A present tense or present subjunctive is possible (e.g. I'd rather he goes / he go home now), but unusual.
(Practical English Usage, 3rd edition, 491.3)

 

[Winwin2011]

A present tense or present subjunctive is possible (e.g. I'd rather he goes / he go home now), but unusual.
(Practical English Usage, 3rd edition, 491.3)

Not a teacher.

Why did Michael Swan say "but unusual"? I don't have the book.

 

[YAMATO2201]

Why did Michael Swan say "but unusual"?

I don't know. :-D

This thread might interest you:

https://forum.wordreference.com/threads/subjunctive-i-would-rather-she-tomorrow-than-today.470085/

 

[tedmc]

It says in the book: Would rather is followed by a past subjunctive when its subject is different than the subject of the following verb. This happens when we talk about what we want someone else to do.[...] (It is followed by the infinitive (without 'to') when its subject is the same as the subject of the next verb. This happens when we talk about what we would prefer to do.

ted wrote:

The is some confusion there. I meant that, where the subjects are the same, the present tense is used. Where they are different, the past tense applies.

The second sentence could have been clearer but my first sense was clear enough.

 

[tedmc]

You wrote "simple present (a) is used if the subject is the same as the verb", ted. That was not 'clear enough' to me.

How can the subject be the same as the verb?