Questions and negative statements without "s"

[Rachel Adams]

Hello.

Is it true that in questions and negative statements when talking about third person singular "s" is not used because it is present in "does"? I mean "Does she speak?" "She doesn't speak."

 

[teechar]

After "do", "did", or "does", we use the base form of the verb. Is that what you're asking about?

 

[Rachel Adams]

After "do", "did", or "does", we use the base form of the verb. Is that what you're asking about?

Yes, I know that but one of my friends told me that in the present simple with the third person singul with "does" and "doesn't" English uses the base form of the verb because there is an "s" in "does". Could it be the reason? No one says "She doesn't speaks" or "Does she speaks?"

 

[emsr2d2]

I don't think it has anything to do with "does" ending in an "s". An expert in historical grammar might be able to tell you. It simply follows the same pattern as with a different auxiliary verb.

She speaks.
Does she speak?
Would she speak?
Could she speak?
Can she speak?
She does speak.
She would speak
She could speak.
She can speak.

And the tense makes no difference.
Didn't she speak?
She didn't speak.
etc.

 

[GoesStation]

Yes, I know that but one of my friends told me that in the present simple with the third person singul with "does" and "doesn't" English uses the base form of the verb because there is an "s" in "does". Could it be the reason? No one says "She doesn't speaks" or "Does she speaks?"

"Do" is an auxiliary verb in this construction. Auxiliary verbs are always followed by a bare infinitive. The "s" in "does" is irrelevant.

 

[jutfrank]

Rachel—your friend is simply saying that the auxiliary verb does is already conjugated for the third person so you don't have to conjugate the main verb as well. And yes, she's right.

 

[Rachel Adams]

Rachel—your friend is simply saying that the auxiliary verb does is already conjugated for the third person so you don't have to conjugate the main verb as well. And yes, she's right.

She said we don't have to use an "s" with another verb because "doesn't" and "does" already have it.

 

[jutfrank]

Yes, I understand that. She's right.

 

[emsr2d2]

It makes no difference that the word "does" includes an "s". It's simply the third person singular form of the auxiliary verb. My examples in #4 show that the auxiliary verb doesn't have to contain an "s" in order for the bare infinitive to be used after it.