...which may be going towards certain infrastructure around the UK to do with energy... [ellipting '(that/which has) to do]

Uncanny

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I am wondering how often the structure 'that has to do' is reduced to just 'to do', and what style marker it carries in such a case.
Let's see:

...and that's how you know how much to pay for your gas and electricity but National Grids already get paid through our income taxes via the government. Again that is not true: you do not pay for National Grid through your income taxes although the government does have a spending on the energy sector some of which may be going towards certain infrastructure around the UK to do with energy but the vast majority of National Grids infrastructure is paid by way of bills that come to you via your energy companies so part of your energy bill is made up of the consumption... the vast majority of it but part of it every year is also going towards National Grid which is the distribution Network. That is how it is paid not through your income taxes.
 

Uncanny

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First, can you please tell us where you got that chunk of text from?
Source: a Youtube video, 'Gas and Electricity are NOT Free!' by Daniel ShenSmith, a Barrister of England and Wales ('BlackBeltBarrister')
 

Tarheel

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No. The phrase is "has to do with". Yes. It has, in my opinion, been reduced to "to do with". As for the grammar, we'll have to wait for Jutfrank or Piscean or some other grammar nerd.
😊
 

Tarheel

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Being interested in the language we speak does not make us nerds.
How about "grammar intellectual"?

As for me, I'm a nobody, but I'm used to it.
 
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