Dear Raymott (and other teachers

),
Is it the same reason why we often say "I don't have
the time to do something"

I.e. I have time (without "the") for many things, but I don't have the time for this particular thing. Am I right with this interpretation?
I'd say so.
Just to give a wonderful example:
Col. Jessup, portrayed by Jack Nicholson in one of my favourite movies, "A Few Good Men", said the following sentence:
"I have neither
the time nor the inclination to explain myself to a man who rises and sleeps under the blanket of the very freedom I provide, then questions the manner in which I provide it!"
That's a good example.
But (and it seems a little contradiction

) we would say "I have no time for fools"/"I don't have time (without "the") for fools", though it conveys the meaning that I might have plenty of time otherwise, but not for fools. So would it make any difference if I said "I don't have
the time for fools"?
Hmm. Good point. I would tell you the truth about this, but "you can't handle the truth!" 
Thank you very much for your answer.
PS: I apologize for hijacking the thread, but I'm almost sure that Xianyu will also be interested in your answer.
