
Originally Posted by
TheParser
***** NOT A TEACHER / ONLY MY OPINION
Kwsue,
May I contribute something to this thread? I found it in
Professor George O. Curme's extremely scholarly A Grammar
of the English Language.
(1) It seems that your idea of the passive is right on.
(2) Professor Curme writes:
[P]assive force is often associated with intransitive
form.
(1) The professor gives this example:
Such houses sell easily.
He says that the sentence = Such houses can be sold easily. This sentence is passive voice, but I'm not convinced that the one above it is. Rewording a sentence by using the passive tense doesn't mean the original sentence is passive tense.
Thank you