is sentence "have you had called me?" is correct.
if correct then what is its grammar structure.
i mean to say like "past perfect or something like that.
It's not correct. There are 12 tenses and modes in English.
1) Present: simple, continuous, perfect, perfect continuous
2) Past: simple, continuous, perfect, perfect continuous
3) Future: simple, continuous, perfect, perfect continuous
Each has its structure as follows:
Simple: a verb itself, except future with auxiliary 'shall' and 'will'
Continuous: a present participle with verb 'to be' [be + V-ing].
Perfect: a past participle with verb 'to have' [have + V-ed].
Perfect Continuous: a continuous tense with verb 'to have' [have + been + V-ing].
The sentence above, "have had called", does not correspond to any of the 12 tenses above.
The past perfect of the sentence is "Had you called me?"
is this sentence correct.
he might had gone to canada.
I'm not a teacher, but I write for a living. Please don't ask me about 2nd conditionals, but I'm a safe bet for what reads well in (American) English.
He has called - present perfect
He had called - past perfect
Many writers use 'simple' only in the sense of 'non-perfect and non-continuous'. They will therefore not refer to the 'present perfect simple'.
Most writers today consider that there is no future tense in English. The use of the modal WILL is one of several ways to refer to the future.
Last edited by 5jj; 10-Mar-2011 at 15:06. Reason: typos
So thankful to all of you guys. Appreciate you guys