
Originally Posted by
learnerr
As a student majoring in English grammar, I got some questions.
As a student majoring in English grammar, you should write 'I have...'.
As far as I understood, 'bare infinitives' and 'to infinitives' act as a kind of verb. They are parts of verbs.
Also heard that 'bare infinitive' is the standard form of eEnglish verbs.
The bare infinitive form, for verbs that have one, is identical to the form listed in dictionaries. To that extent it is the 'standard' form.
First question : So, is it right that after the modal(or auxiliary) verb, 'bare infinitive' or 'to infinitive' is used as a verb? They are verbs.
ex1)) I can do it (for 'bare infinitive') ex2) I ought to do it(for 'to infinitive')
The bare infinitive is used after the nine core modals, and after NEED and DARE when they are used as modals. OUGHT is often considered a marginal modal. One of the things that make it different from the core modals is the to-infinitive following it.
Second question is about objective complement.
I know that both 'bare infinitive' and 'to infinitive' are used as objective complement. But what are their functions?
1."He made me do it" In this case, I think "do"(bare infinitive) does work as neither a noun nor adjective. In my opinion, it just works as some kind of verb, just as "do" in the example of "I can do it". Am I right?
'do' is indeed a bare infinitive here, a verb.
2."He forced me to do it." In this case, I also think "to do"(to infinitive) does NOT work as either a noun or adjective. Think it works just like the bare infinitive above. Am I right? It functions in a similar way.
If I am right, when 'to/bare infinitive' is used as objective complement, do native English-speakers accept and consider it as a kind of a verb?It is a verb.