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Thread: bare infinitive and to infinitive

  1. #1
    learnerr is offline Newbie
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    Default bare infinitive and to infinitive

    Dear teachers and English users

    As a student majoring in English grammar, I got some questions.

    As far as I understood, 'bare infinitives' and 'to infinitives' act as a kind of verb.
    Also heard that 'bare infinitive' is the standard form of english verb.

    First question : So, is it right that after the modal(or auxiliary) verb, 'bare infinitive' or 'to infinitive' is used as a verb?
    ex1)) I can do it (for 'bare infinitive') ex2) I ought to do it(for 'to infinitive')

    Second question is about objective complement.
    I know that both 'bare infinitive' and 'to infinitive' are used as objective complement. But what are their functions?
    1."He made me do it" In this case, I think "do"(bare infinitive) does work as neither a noun nor adjective. In my opinion, it just works as some kind of verb, just as "do" in the example of "I can do it". Am I right?


    2."He forced me to do it." In this case, I also think "to do"(to infinitive) does NOT work as either a noun or adjective. Think it works just like the bare infinitive above. Am I right?

    If I am right, when 'to/bare infinitive' is used as objective complement, do native English-speakers accept and consider it as a kind of a verb?


    I wish you could answer either of these questions. Please help me out!

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    Default Re: bare infinitive and to infinitive

    *Not a teacher

    1) You are not allowed to use "to infinitive" after modal verbs. Ought to is a modal verb (remember, "to" is from ought and not from the "to infinitive").

    I ought to do it.

    2), 3) I am not sure about them and I don't want to give you wrong information.

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    Default Re: bare infinitive and to infinitive

    Quote Originally Posted by learnerr View Post
    As a student majoring in English grammar, I got some questions.
    As a student majoring in English grammar, you should write 'I have...'.

    As far as I understood, 'bare infinitives' and 'to infinitives' act as a kind of verb. They are parts of verbs.
    Also heard that 'bare infinitive' is the standard form of eEnglish verbs.
    The bare infinitive form, for verbs that have one, is identical to the form listed in dictionaries. To that extent it is the 'standard' form.

    First question : So, is it right that after the modal(or auxiliary) verb, 'bare infinitive' or 'to infinitive' is used as a verb? They are verbs.

    ex1)) I can do it (for 'bare infinitive') ex2) I ought to do it(for 'to infinitive')
    The bare infinitive is used after the nine core modals, and after NEED and DARE when they are used as modals. OUGHT is often considered a marginal modal. One of the things that make it different from the core modals is the to-infinitive following it.

    Second question is about objective complement.
    I know that both 'bare infinitive' and 'to infinitive' are used as objective complement. But what are their functions?
    1."He made me do it" In this case, I think "do"(bare infinitive) does work as neither a noun nor adjective. In my opinion, it just works as some kind of verb, just as "do" in the example of "I can do it". Am I right?
    'do' is indeed a bare infinitive here, a verb.

    2."He forced me to do it." In this case, I also think "to do"(to infinitive) does NOT work as either a noun or adjective. Think it works just like the bare infinitive above. Am I right? It functions in a similar way.

    If I am right, when 'to/bare infinitive' is used as objective complement, do native English-speakers accept and consider it as a kind of a verb?It is a verb.
    5
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    Threadstarter / Original Poster

    Default Re: bare infinitive and to infinitive

    Thank you both SirGod and fivejedjon,
    Think fivejedjon helped me out, I really appreciate it.
    5jj likes this.

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    learnerr is offline Newbie
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    Threadstarter / Original Poster

    Default Re: bare infinitive and to infinitive

    Thank you so much!
    I have another maybe the last question and posted it.
    Could you please help me out with that one too?
    Anyway, so grateful that you answered this question for me!

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    Default Re: bare infinitive and to infinitive

    He made me do it
    I don't think do it is an object complement. Objects and their complements have intensive relationship, we can use the copula to be, eg.
    He made me happy ( = 'me is happy', I am happy)
    We consider it important ( it to be important), etc.
    And verbs, I believe, cannot function as complements.

    Your example, I believe , is a clause of object where the object is a non-finite clause of object:
    - He made something
    where something =
    - - me (subject in the accusative)
    - - do (transitive verb)
    - - it (object)

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