Sometimes I usually use the following two sentences:
1. I will compete the work within 1 week.
2. I will have the work completed(or done) within 1 week.
I'd like to know which one is more formal? and what is the difference between them.
Many thanks in advance,
Tim
I am not a teacher nor a native speaker.
I feel these two sentences have the different meaning.
When you are saying, 'I will complete the work ...', you will do it by yourself while 'I will have (get) the work completed (done) ...' has the meaning of you arranging for somebody else to do it for you.
Compare:
1. Bill is cutting his hair (he is doing it by himself)
2. Bill is having his hair cut (a barber is cutting his hair)
I hope this will help.
I recommend you to wait for a teacher to answer to your question.
Yours sincerely, Alex.
"I will have it completed by next week" is a little ambiguous. It could mean you're going to get someone else to do it but it can also simply mean that you will do it yourself and it will be finished by next.
Person A: Can you do this for me as soon as possible?
Person B: No problem. I'll have it done by next week.
In that example, I would assume Person B was going to do it.
Your title suggests that you may have wanted to know about the difference between:
1. I will compete the work within 1 week.
2. I will have completed (or done) the work within 1 week.
Is that what you wanted to know?
1. I will compete the work within 1 week.
2. I will have completed (or done) the work within 1 week.
In practical terms, there is no a real difference. particularly with a verb like complete.
There is slightly more difference when the verb itself does not indicate completion:
3. I will plant the seeds before you get home.
4. I will have planted the seeds before you get home.
In #3, the speaker simply indicates that s/he will perform the action. In #4, s/he places more emphasis on the completion of the action.