"The Agreement may be terminated by either party upon 30 days' prior written notice."
I think "upon" renders "prior" redundant. Do you agree?
Thanks!
As for the redundancy of "prior", I have found this: AdamsDrafting » Blog Archive » “Notice” or “Prior Notice”?
It seems redundant to me. Of course the notice is "prior". It wouldn't be of much purpose to provide 30 days of notice afterwards.