When I feel like pitying someone , which one should I choose : poor he or poor him?
Poor him.
But isn't 'he' the subject? Shouldn't it be poor he? Could you give me a further explanation,please?
While googling this, I came across this statement:
I've been thinking:free-standing pronouns are accusative, even when they're interpreted as subjects: Who did that? Me.
Who did that? Him. (not "he") -- I agree
Who did that? Them. (not "they") -- I think I agree, although this is not something I've heard a lot.
Who did that? Her. (not "she") -- My first thought was "no, it's 'she', definitely". Now I'm not sure. It's "poor her", this I know.
What do you think? (It's only loosely related to the original question, I know, but it is.)
PS: OK, after a while I'm sure
Who did that? Her.
is more natural. But it doesn't mean that I'm right.
Well, I think you're right.It wouldn't sound natural if you said :Who did it? I. ( it woul definitely be ,if you want to use the subject pronoun' I did it' and not 'I' by itself)
I'm not a teacher, but I write for a living. Please don't ask me about 2nd conditionals, but I'm a safe bet for what reads well in (American) English.