Could I use the contraction "there's been for there have been" as in "there's been many people protesting.........."?
I'm not a teacher.
I found the following in "Comments by President On His Choice of Justice" in the New York Times:
George Bush senior: "No, and a lot of other things too. I believe in the separation of powers. I happen to think that there's been many many things that trouble me - encroachment of micromanagement by the United States Congress on the Presidency. But I haven't asked this able judge about those things."
I would post a link, but I have not enough posts to have that privilege.
I would put it in the category of things we say, but things we shouldn't write.
Just like we say "There's... " before something clearly plural, but would usually write "There are..." I''m sure people often do say "There's been.." before something that's clearly plural, but would usually write "There have been."
I'm not a teacher, but I write for a living. Please don't ask me about 2nd conditionals, but I'm a safe bet for what reads well in (American) English.
Here's a good link to easy explanations of contractions.
English Contractions
They don't cite anything for "there have been" and I'm not certain there is one.
One thing I do know, however, is that Bush 41 and Bush 43 were each known for some outrageous linguistic gymnastics.
John
Yes, it does, but to repeat and emphasise Barb's warning:
RoverI would put it in the category of things we say, but things we shouldn't write.