Have I caught it right that at the end of the audio file he says: "I says"?
I says.mp3
(UKBlack: with Eddie Nestor Weds 21st December 2011)
Thanks.
Apparently, some people find it "cool" to use the third-person singular present tense suffix after I + verb. Eg., "I loves you." (I've even come across with, "I loveth you. "I assume the person who wrote this wanted to be "super cool".
), "I has it." I have noticed this with a bunch of native English speakers, mostly American girls.
Is this really "trendy"?How do these sentences ("I loves you.", "I loveth you.", "I has it.", etc.) sound to an educated American?
The speaker in suprunp's post is a black British person.
If it's genuine dialect, (there are several BrE dialects in which the conjugation is I/you/(s)he/we they loves, others in which it is I/you/(s)he/we/they love), then I have nothing against it. After all, I speak a dialect - mine just happens to be slightly dated standard BrE RP.
If it's put on as a mark of solidarity for or against something, then it irritates me. That's just my personal dislike of artificiality
Context is always important; labelling is rarely important.
So, in proper context (for example, in a friendly conversation among native speakers), would you NOT deem it to be incorrect grammar? (As for, "I loveth you.", then I'd suggest, "I loveth thee." - just to be "stylistic.") So far, I have thought that this is definitely incorrect, but if you approve it, I'll concede.
*Edit
I see.Thank you for your answer.