When inversion happens with adverb phrase, 1 and 3 has the form of verb+subject, but 2 has subject+verb. Is it because "he" is a pronoun? or isn't there any fixed rule for inversion?
1. My cell phone was under the table.
-> Under the table was my cell phone.
2. He stood at the door
-> At the door he stood.
3. A helicoptor passed right over our heads.
-> Right over our heads passed a helicoptor.
You mean these are all possible.
Under the table was my cell phone => Under the table my cell phone was
Right over our heads passed a helicopter.=> Right over our heads a helicopter passed
Then, what's the difference between the two? I think the purpose of inversion is to emphasize what comes first, isn't it?
At the door he stood.: emphasizing he?
At the door stood.he : emphsizing stood?
[not a teacher]
According to PEU by Micheal Swan
1- If the subject is a noun.
- A girl stood at the door.-------> At the door stood a girl.(not At the door a girl stood. )
2-If the subject is a pronoun.
- He stood at the door.--------> At the door he stood .(not At the door stood he.)
It sounds like it is part of a nursery rhyme.
A little gray mouse came to my door
And right at the door stood he.
And he looked, and he looked, and he looked at me.
At me and my kitty cats three.
I mean, I just made that up, but it has that feel to it, doesn't it?
I'm not a teacher, but I write for a living. Please don't ask me about 2nd conditionals, but I'm a safe bet for what reads well in (American) English.