Dear teacher,
can in spite be used in the following way:
''It is said that some ice creams cause diarrhoea. In spite, I shall have one anyway.''
Thanks!
No.
You always need to say in spite of.
'In spite of that, I shall have one anyway.'
Thank you Rover,
so, in spite (without "of"), as I understood, does not exist.
However, using despite is correct, right? Thus:
"Despite, I shall have one anyway."
Thanks.
In spite and despite are prepositions. As such they can be followed by nouns, pronouns or a gerund.
In spite of that/Despite that I shall have one all the same.
or
you could use adverbs such as
However/Nevertheless I will have one all the same.
Hope its clear.
You could more simply say
''It is said that some ice creams cause diarrhoea, but I shall have one anyway.''
Rover
Off point, but I'm curious: Would a BrE speaker say "ice creams"?
I'm not a teacher, but I write for a living. Please don't ask me about 2nd conditionals, but I'm a safe bet for what reads well in (American) English.
In that context, I think "ice creams" is the proper choice. Like "fishes."
The ice cream you buy in the store, labeled as "Nestle" is OK. The homemade ice cream you buy from the guy with the bicycle cart in Mexico may not be. Some ice creams can cause you intestinal problems.
OK, I think I got it.
However, in spite and despite - alone, without ''of''/''that'' - are NEVER used in English?
Or there are cases when they can be used?
Many thanks to all of you!
(Not a Teacher)
No, they never come alone. On another note, "spite" as a noun means maliciousness or hatred. As a verb, it means to annoy or inconvenience someone out of ill will.
"My boss refused to give me a recommendation out of spite."
"My ex-husband called the police out to my house once just to spite me."