Hi everyone
First I'd like to clarify that before posting this, I really did read the thread "would" of Aysaa (at least 3 times) but I still don't see what I am concerning.
As usual, I see a lot of native speakers (in American movies for example) said this structure " It/He/She would + infinitive" such as:
1. It would be great.
2. I think he would look hot with some ink.
3. How would you know that?
4. You said you wouldn't read it.
Questions:
a/ If we judge them as the type 2 of If clause, that means that isn't true or will not happen in the future -->It seems to not make sense. I am impressed by Raymott when he said It is a way of saying when you don't have the statistics to back up that statement, but you're pretty sure it's true ( contrasting to conditional clause!!!) but I need more.
So may you all help to explain what 4 sentences above are implying , as well as how to use it
b/ what is the difference btw "would+infinitive" and "would+have+past participle" , when we use "it would have been great"
Thanks
Could I have some replies please?
Much appreciated to Raymott's reply but I have something unclear
If you say there is an implicit if clause here, that means things were referred in the statement are NOT true, aren't they!! because this is the 2 type of IF clause. If yes, it is kind of not right, isn't it.Code:1. It would be great. There’s an implicit “if” clause that belongs to this. For example, “It would great (if you could that).”
No, it's merely hypothetical.
Context is always important; labelling is rarely important.
I've never called in a Conditional 2. Maybe someone who is more used to attributing numbers to sentences with "would" in them can give you a better idea of how it works.
When I say, "I would call it an adverbial phrase", I am not suggesting that it is not true that it's an adverbial phrase. Rather I am suggesting the opposite: "It is an adverbial phrase, to the best of my knowledge and experience."
when someone say that, I also feel that is merely hypothetical and the speaker themself want to express something will be or happen like they say based on his/her experience.
But I am so confused here that is the tense of verb, especially if there is an implicit condition existing behide the statement. Or I just should be known there is not any conditional clause here.
To me, it's simply an issue of politeness.
This also happens with "can =>could". "Can you do this for me?" => "Could you do this for me?"
"Will you do this for me?" => "Would you do this for me?"
"X is Y" => "I'd say that X is Y"
If you can understand this politeness usage, you don't have to worry about conditional 2s or hypotheses, contrary-to-fact propositions, or any of the rest, in relation to this usage.