Which is correct? Or are they all fine but semantically a bit different from each other?
When we experience things we don't know, we may be able to broaden our minds.
When we experience things we haven't known, we may be able to broaden our minds.
When we experience things we didn't know, we may be able to broaden our minds.
Isn't the first one logically improbable?
Because when you experience something, I guess you know it.
I mean you are not in the state of not knowing it at the time you experience it
The time of not knowing it does end as you BEGIN to experience it, yes, but we say it that wall all the time. As I land at Heathrow, I can say "I've never been to England before."
In fact, I can say that throughout my entire two-week vacation there. "This is a marvelous trip. I can't believe I've never visited England before!"
It's understood that the "I haven't" refers to prior to the start of this experience.
I'm not a teacher, but I write for a living. Please don't ask me about 2nd conditionals, but I'm a safe bet for what reads well in (American) English.
Well, I think I find the first one illogical, while Bhai finds the second one the least natural, so it just goes to show you that it simply depends on what your perspective is at the time you say it, think about it, or experience it.
Are you looking at yourself then, but thinking about a time before? Are you thinking about yourself now, after having had the experience, so that your time of not knowing and your time of experiencing are both past? Tenses are more flexible than many people might expect them to be, and which one(s) you use will depend on where you mind is at the time you utter those words.
I'm not a teacher, but I write for a living. Please don't ask me about 2nd conditionals, but I'm a safe bet for what reads well in (American) English.