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Hello could you please help me understand the difference?
I heard two lovers arguing over what the girl had actually said. Her boyfriend claimed that she said, "I will never GET to date again." while she insisted that what she had said was, "I will never date again". What I don't get, is why it was such a big deal whether she said the sentence with "get" or without it. To me, both the statements mean the same, but apparently they are different. So what's the difference?
I understand your confusion. The bottom line in both statements is that she will not date. The difference is in how she feels about it. "I will never GET to date again." implies that she wants to, but can't. "I will never date again" sounds as if she does not want to.
Thank you.
Would the same logic apply to these two statements?
I finally got to see my son yesterday. (= I had really wanted to see him.)
I finally saw my son yesterday. (= I didn't care for it much.)
'Get to do', primarily in AmE, means 'have the opportunity to do'.
Is this supposed to answer my question from my second post in this topic? If so, then I don't get it. If not, please tell me somebody if I go it right based on J&K Tutoring's explanation.Quote:
Originally Posted by philo2009
The absence of 'get to' is not necessarily negative. It depends on the situation. The combination of will and never with the absence of get to (have the opportunity to) can imply things that a simple past doesn't.Quote:
Originally Posted by CarloSsS