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Reply With QuoteThey are fine, though 'never' is more natural than 'not ever' in the third.
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- 26-Feb-2012, 17:39 #1
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I've not seen Is this structure correct? I know that using "I haven't (or have not) seen ..." etc. is the more usual and undoubtedly correct way of expressing the idea. But would these be acceptable? I've head that in informal BrE, these can be used:
- I've not seen him lately.
- I've not had any problems yet.
- I've not ever met with such ignorance.
- ...
- 26-Feb-2012, 17:42 #2
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Re: I've not seen Context is important. Please provide enough for us to be able to deal effectively with your question.
Your thread title should include all or part of the word/phrase being discussed.
If you just want to know the meaning of a word, try OneLook Dictionary Search first.
- 26-Feb-2012, 18:04 #3
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Re: I've not seen Thank you for your answer. Is it informal, formal or neutral? Also, could somebody tell me whether this is acceptable in AmE or not?
- 26-Feb-2012, 18:08 #4
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Re: I've not seen It is not very formal - we don't use contractions in very formal writing or speaking - but it's not particularly informal.
Context is important. Please provide enough for us to be able to deal effectively with your question.
Your thread title should include all or part of the word/phrase being discussed.
If you just want to know the meaning of a word, try OneLook Dictionary Search first.
- 26-Feb-2012, 19:25 #5
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Re: I've not seen I don't find them weird, but as an American, I'm much, much more likley to say "I haven't..." than "I've not..."
I'm not a teacher, but I write for a living. Please don't ask me about 2nd conditionals, but I'm a safe bet for what reads well in (American) English.
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